PR2F Certification Dumps

Exin

PR2F

Question: 1

Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed? 

A. Senior User

B. Business Case

C. Change

D. Cost 

Answer: B

Question: 2

According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that of business operations? 

A. Incurs cost

B. Introduces business change

C. Delivers benefits

D. Creates products 

Answer: B

Question: 3

Which of the following is FALSE? 

A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle

B. Manage by exception is a PRINCE2 principle

C. Focus on products is a PRINCE2 principle

D. Tailor to suit the project environment is a PRINCE2 principle 

Answer: A

Question: 4

According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the aspects of project performance to be managed? 

A. Processes, themes, principles

B. Time, cost, quality, people

C. Time, cost, quality

D. Time, cost, quality, scope, benefits, risk 

Answer: D

Question: 5

What environment does PRINCE2 assume? 

A. Third party

B. Customer/Supplier

C. Fixed-price contract

D. Management and Specialist 

Answer: B

Question: 6

A characteristic of a project is that they come with an element of uncertainty. Which of the following PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification and management of such uncertainty? 

A. Quality

B. Risk

C. Change

D. Organization 

Answer: B

Question: 7

Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2? 

A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making

B. Participants understand each other's roles and needs

C. Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work

D. All problems are escalated to all stakeholders

Answer: A

Question: 8

If an informal issue is defined as a problem or concern, where should it first be recorded? 

A. Issue Register

B. Risk Register

C. Daily Log

D. Exception Report 

Answer: C

Question: 9

Which of the following statements about the Project Initiation Documentation are true? 1. The Project Initiation Documentation is used to ensure that a sound basis exists. 2. The Project Initiation Documentation should be updated at the end of each stage to reflect the current status of a project before the Project Board authorizes a project, 

A. Only 1 is true

B. Only 2 is true

C. Both 1 and 2 are true

D. Neither 1 or 2 are true 

Answer: C

Question: 10

Which is the purpose of the Change theme? 

A. Prevent change to baselined products

B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products

C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned

D. Assess and control uncertainty 

Answer: B

70-414 Certification Test

Microsoft

70-414

Question: 1

Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are part of a host group named Group1 in Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). Server1 and Server2 have identical hardware, software, and settings. You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on a host exceeds 65 percent. The current load on the servers is shown following table.

 You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VM8. VM8 has a CPU utilization of 20 percent.  You discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.  You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.  What should you modify from the Dynamic Optimization configuration? 

A. The Host Reserve threshold

B. The Power Optimization threshold

C. The Aggressiveness level

D. The Dynamic Optimization threshold 

Answer: D

Question: 2

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 Hyper-V hosts in a failover cluster.  The Hyper-V hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs).  You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements: The virtual machines must support live migration. The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers. Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. 

A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV)

B. An NFS share 

C. Storage pools

D. SMB 3.0 shares 

Answer: AB

Question: 3

Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a low-latency high-speed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts. You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.  The solution must meet the following requirements: Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper-V host fails. Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails. What should you recommend? 

A. One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2 

B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1

C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers

D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center 

Answer: B

Question: 4

You have a Hyper-V host named Hyper1 that has Windows Server 2012 installed. Hyper1 hosts 20 virtual machines. Hyper1 has one physical network adapter. You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyper1 to all of the virtual machines. What should you modify?  

A. The settings of the virtual switch

B. The settings of the virtual network adapter

C. The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter

D. The settings of the legacy network adapter 

Answer: B

Question: 5

You plan to implement a virtualization solution to host 10 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines will be hosted on servers that run Windows Server 2012. You need to identify which servers must be deployed for the planned virtualization solution.  The solution must meet the following requirements:  Minimize the number of servers. Ensure that live migration can be used between the hosts. Which servers should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate servers in the answer area. 

Answer:

Explanation: Just two server with Hyper-V installed is enough to perform a Live Migration. (Minimize the number of servers) Just two server with Hyper-V installed is enough to perform a Live Migration. (Minimize the number of servers) 

Question: 6

Your network contains a Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1. You install Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You create a user account for another administrator named User1. You plan to provide User1 with the ability to manage only the virtual machines that User1 creates. You need to identify what must be created before you delegate the required permissions. What should you identify? 

A. A service template

B. A Delegated Administrator

C. A cloud

D. A host group 

Answer: B

Question: 7

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy a second System Center 2012 infrastructure in a test environment. You create a service template named Template1 in both System Center 2012 infrastructures. For self-service users, you create a service offering for Template1. The users create 20 instances of Template1. You modify Template1 in the test environment. You export the service template to a file named Template1.xml. You need to ensure that the changes to Template1 can be applied to the existing instances in the production environment. What should you do when you import the template? 

A. Overwrite the current service template.

B. Change the name of the service template.

C. Create a new service template.

D. Change the release number of the service template. 

Answer: C

Question: 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

 Server1 uses the storage shown in the following table.

 You perform the following tasks: On Server2F you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an applications SMB share named Share2B. On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3. On Server4, you create an applications SMB share named Share4. You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clus1. On Clus1, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an applications SMB share named Share5B. You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Server1. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files. You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files. Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)? 

A. \\Server3\Share3

B. \\Server2\Share2B

C. \\Clus1\Share5B

D. \\Server4\Share4 

Answer: B

Question: 9

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) deployment. The domain contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

 You install System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) on the nodes in Cluster2.  You configure VMM to use a database in Cluster1. Server5 is the first node in the cluster. You need to back up the VMM encryption key. What should you back up? 

A. A full system backup of Server1

B. A full system backup of Server3

C. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server5

D. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server1 

Answer: A

Question: 10

You have a Windows Server 2012 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. The cluster has Dynamic Optimization enabled. You deploy three highly available virtual machines to the cluster by using System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).  You need to prevent Dynamic Optimization from placing any of the three virtual machines in the same node.  What should you do? 

A. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Compatibility settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines.

B. Set the Priority property of the virtual machine cluster role.

C. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Servicing Windows settings of the virtual machines.

D. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Availability settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines. 

Answer: A

EX0-003 Download Free Pdf

EXIN

EX0-003

Question: 1

Which activity includes addressing the disadvantages of ‘doing nothing’ to those stakeholders that object to the programme? 

A. Analyse stakeholders

B. Sum ma rise risks

C. Carry out a health check

D. Conduct a visioning workshop 

Answer: D

Question: 2

Which of the following statements about the core elements of successful communications is true? 1. Stakeholder analysis is required 2. Audit trail is established 

A. Only 1 is true

B. Only 2 is true

C. Both land 2are true

D. Neither 1 or 2 is true 

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which is an assurance management technique? 

A. Benefits management

B. Risk management

C. Business analysis

D. Gated review 

Answer: D

Question: 4

Which is the MOST likely source of uncertainties whilst transitioning to new ways of working? 

A. Project development

B. Programme level

C. Operational activities

D. Strategic development 

Answer: C

Question: 5

Which is a governance area of focus for the Programme Manager in consultation with other stakeholders? 

A. Providing support for governance assurance reviews

B. Initiating assurance reviews of programme viability

C. Providing business intelligence for Stakeholder Profiles

D. Designing the programm’s governance arrangements 

Answer: D

Question: 6

Which is a responsibility of the Senior Responsible Owner? 

A. Planning and designing the programme with other stakeholders

B. Assuring the integrity of benefits profiles

C. Providing leadership, direction and priorities throughout the programme

D. Ensuring business stability during transition 

Answer: C

Question: 7

Which is represented in a summary risk profile? 

A. Category of risk response

B. Impact of an issue

C. Likelihood of a risk

D. Cause of a risk 

Answer: C

Question: 8

Which is NOT a purpose of a Blueprint? 

A. Maintain the focus on delivering the new capability

B. Provide a clear statement of the end goal of the programme

C. Maintain the programme’s focus on delivering the required transformation

D. Describe the current organization 

Answer: B

Question: 9

Which of the following statements about programme dependencies is true? 1. Internal dependencies include dependencies on strategic decisions 2. Internal dependencies are likely to be linked to the scope of a corporate portfolio 

A. Only 1 is true

B. Only 2 is true

C. Both land 2are true

D. Neither 1 or 2 is true 

Answer: D

Question: 10

What type of cost is associated with Supporting an operational unit until new working practices become part of business as usual? 

A. Project

B. Business change and transition

C. Programme management

D. Capital 

Answer: B

C_EPMBPC_10 Certification Study Guide

SAP

C_EPMBPC_10

Question: 1

How do you control inserting records into the database in BPC? 

A. Via Work Status 

B. Via Business Rules 

C. Via Distributor and Collector 

D. Via Audit 

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which step is required to store a comment to a filled cell in an Excel pop-up in BPC for NetWeaver? 

A. Save the Excel workbook locally. 

B. Enable comments in the Application parameters. 

C. Assign a keyword. 

D. Enable comments in the Application Set parameters. 

Answer: B

Question: 3

What is a restriction for BPC validation rules in BPC for NetWeaver? 

A. A BPC validation rule cannot use a BAdI implementation. 

B. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot be applied to multiple dimension members of a dimension. 

C. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot refer to the same dimension member. 

D. A BPC validation rule cannot refer to multiple driver dimensions. 

Answer: D

Question: 4

For which dimension can you activate a data audit trail for an Application? 

A. Category 

B. Account 

C. Time 

D. Entity

Answer: A

Question: 5

What tasks can be done using the Web Administration? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question. 

A. Changing documents type but not document subtype 

B. Activating but not deactivating auditing 

C. Adjusting the version number of a report template 

D. Setting up file types

Answer: C, D

Question: 6

What is the consequence in BPC for NetWeaver when updating the web admin parameters without entering the required parameters? 

A. Warnings 

B. Nothing 

C. Crashes 

D. Errors

Answer: B

Question: 7

Where do you set the data audit to capture transactional data changes? 

A. At Appset level in Admin Console 

B. At Appset level in Web Admin 

C. At Application level in Admin Console 

D. At Application level in Web Admin

Answer: D

Question: 8

What tasks are accomplished during full optimization in BPC for NetWeaver? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question. 

A. Creating a copy of the MultiProvider for the BPC Application 

B. Closing the open request after posting 50,000 records 

C. Updating DB statistics for the InfoCube 

D. Compressing and indexing the InfoCube 

E. Executing a data model analysis and alerting if the data model can be improved

Answer: C, D

6202 Exam Questions

Avaya

6202

Question: 1

You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating system is true? 

A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation 

B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA

C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other user 

D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as any other user 

Answer: B

Question: 2.

You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot the problem? 

A. Reinstall CCMA

B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used 

C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server 

D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain 

Answer: B

Question: 3.

In an Avaya Aura™ Contact Center, what does enabling Open do? 

A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue© Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls 

B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)

C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail

D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura™ Contact Center by implementing the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization 

Answer: B

Question: 4.

After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display the installation log. What is the path to this log? 

A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|

B. C:\Logs\CCMS

C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops

D. D:\Log\CMS 

Answer: C

Question: 5.

Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server before installing Avaya Aura™ Contact Center server applications? 

A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding order 

B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must the first in the binding order 

C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must be first in the binding order 

D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding order  

Answer: C

642-874 Braindumps

Cisco

642-874

Question: 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Which recommended practice is applicable? 

A. If no core layer is deployed, the design will be easier to scale.

B. A dedicated campus core layer should be deployed for connecting three or more buildings.

C. If no core layer is deployed, the distribution switches should not be fully meshed.

D. A dedicated campus core layer is not needed for connecting fewer than five buildings. 

Answer: B

Question: 2

When a router has to make a rate transition from LAN to WAN, what type of congestion needs should be considered in the network design? 

A. RX-queue deferred

B. TX-queue deferred

C. RX-queue saturation

D. TX-queue saturation

E. RX-queue starvation

F. TX-queue starvation 

Answer: F

Question: 3

To which switch or switches should you provide redundant links in order to achieve high availability with reliable fast convergence in the enterprise campus? 

A. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link

B. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link

C. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link

D. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link

E. to two core switches running Cisco NSF and SSO from two redundant distribution switches running Cisco NSF and SSO 

Answer: D

Question: 4

Which of these statements is correct regarding Stateful Switchover and Cisco Nonstop Forwarding? 

A. Utilizing Cisco NSF in Layer 2 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.

B. Utilizing SSO in Layer 3 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.

C. Distribution switches are single points of failure causing outages for the end devices.

D. Utilizing Cisco NSF and SSO in a Layer 2 environment can reduce outages to less than one second.

E. NSF and SSO with redundant supervisors have the most impact on outages at the access layer. 

Answer: E

Question: 5

When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer? 

A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks

B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported

C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed

D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed

E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks 

Answer: A

Question: 6

Which of these is a recommended practice with trunks? 

A. use ISL encapsulation

B. use 802.1q encapsulation

C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation

D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network 

Answer: B

Question: 7

Which of the following is a recommended practice of a data center core? 

A. Server-to-server traffic always remains in the core layer.

B. The core infrastructure should be in Layer 3.

C. Core layer should run BGP along with an IGP because iBGP has a lower administrative distance than any IGP.

D. The Cisco Express Forwarding hashing algorithm is the default, based on the IP address and Layer 4 port. 

Answer: B

Question: 8

Which statement about data center access layer design modes is correct? 

A. The access layer is the first oversubscription point in a data center design.

B. The data center access layer provides the physical-level connections to the server resources and only operates at Layer 3.

C. When using a Layer 2 looped design, VLANs are not extended into the aggregation layer.

D. When using a Layer 3 design, stateful services requiring Layer 2 connectivity are provisioned from the aggregation layer. 

Answer: A

Question: 9

Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions? 

A. FlexLinks

B. loop-free U

C. looped square

D. looped triangle

E. loop-free inverted U 

Answer: B

Question: 10

Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct? 

A. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points.

B. Flow control is only provided by QoS.

C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop.

D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus. 

Answer: A